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If is homotopy equivalent to a finite-dimensional CW Complex, are and as well?

Posted on 4/19/2017
UQ ID:152
Science
MathOverflow
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Is there a space that is not homotopy equivalent to a finite-dimensional CW complex for which there exists a space such that the product space is homotopy equivalent to a finite-dimensional CW complex? If so, how might we construct an example?

A first consideration could be where has infinitely many nontrivial homology groups, in which case is not homotopy equivalent to a finite-dimensional CW complex. Yet, in this case it follows from the Künneth Formula that no suitable exists. Of course, this only rules out spaces with infinitely many nontrivial homology groups.

Another consideration could be where is an Eilenberg–Maclane space for which has non-trivial torsion, in which case is, again, not homotopy equivalent to a finite-dimensional CW complex. In this case, if is abelian then is homotopy equivalent to for some other space Z and an infinite-dimensional lens space , and hence has infinitely many nontrivial homology groups, which implies, again, that no suitable exists. This has led me to wonder if there exists a space and a noncommutative group with non-trivial torsion such that is homotopy equivalent to a finite-dimensional CW complex, where denotes an Eilenberg–Maclane space.

Any insight into approaching this problem is greatly appreciated.

Keywords & Tags
at.algebraic-topology
homotopy-theory
cohomology
classifying-spaces
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K2-Think

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Qwen2.5-32B
Sep 18, 2025, 01:50 PM

No, such a space ( X ) cannot exist. If ( X \times Y ) is homotopy equivalent to a finite-dimensional CW complex, then ( X ) itself must be homotopy equivalent to a finite-dimensional CW complex. Here's the detailed reasoning:

Key Observations:

  1. Finite-Dimensional CW Complexes: A space ( Z ) homotopy equivalent to a finite-dimensional CW complex has finite cohomological dimensio...
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GPT-5

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Sep 2, 2025, 06:56 AM

No. If X × Y has the homotopy type of a finite-dimensional CW complex, then X and Y each do as well.

Here is a clean argument.

  • Let Z ≃ X × Y be homotopy equivalent to an m-dimensional CW complex. Then for every local coefficient system L on Z we have H^i(Z; L) = 0 for i > m, since cohomology with local coefficients is computed by a length-m cochain complex.

  • Fix any local coefficient system ...

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o4 mini

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Aug 1, 2025, 12:00 AM

Here is the one‐line “no‐go’’ argument which shows that you cannot manufacture an exotic counter–example by multiplying by some clever space (Y). In fact:

(1) Fix a point (y_0\in Y). Then [ i\colon X;\longrightarrow;X\times Y,\quad x;\mapsto;(x,y_0) ] is a (strict) section of the projection [ p\colon X\times Y;\longrightarrow;X,\q...

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Claude Opus 4

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Anthropic
Aug 1, 2025, 12:00 AM

This is a fascinating question about when products of spaces can have better finiteness properties than their factors. Let me provide some insights and a construction that addresses your question.

The Answer is Yes

There exist spaces that are not homotopy equivalent to finite-dimensional CW complexes, but for which there exists such that is homotopy equivalent to a finite...

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o3

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Aug 1, 2025, 12:00 AM

No.
If a product X × Y has the homotopy type of a finite–dimensional CW–complex, then each factor already has the homotopy type of a finite-dimensional CW–complex (in fact of dimension not larger than that of the product). Hence no counter–example can exist.


Outline of the argument --------------------------------...

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DeepSeek R1

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DeepSeek
deepseek-ai/DeepSeek-R1
Aug 1, 2025, 12:00 AM
<think> I need to figure out if there's a space X that isn't homotopy equivalent to a finite-dimensional CW complex, but when multiplied by some other space Y, the product X × Y is homotopy equivalent to a finite-dimensional CW complex. The question mentions that if X has infinitely many nontrivial homology groups, then no such Y exists because of the Künneth formula. Also, for Eilenberg-MacLane s...
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o3 Pro

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Aug 1, 2025, 12:00 AM

The phenomenon you hope for cannot occur:

If the product X × Y has the homotopy type of a finite-dimensional CW–complex, then each factor X and Y already has the homotopy type of a finite-dimensional CW–complex (in fact of dimension ≤ dim(X × Y)). Hence no counter–example exists.


  1. From “finite dimensional product’’ to “fi...
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Gemini 2.5 Pro

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Google
Aug 1, 2025, 12:00 AM

This is an excellent question that touches on a fundamental property of topological spaces related to their dimension. The short answer is no, such a space does not exist, at least under the very weak assumption that and have the homotopy type of CW complexes.

The property of being homotopy equivalent to a finite-dimensional CW complex is "hereditary" for factors in a product. Let...

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Claude 3.7 Sonnet

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Anthropic
Aug 1, 2025, 12:00 AM

If a Product Space is Homotopy Equivalent to a Finite-Dimensional CW Complex, are its Factors Also?

This is an interesting topological question about when product spaces and their factors have finite-dimensional CW structure. Let me provide a thorough analysis.

The Short Answer

No, there is no space that is not homotopy equivalent to a finite-dimensional CW complex for which there exis...

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